zlacker

[parent] [thread] 2 comments
1. zimpen+(OP)[view] [source] 2020-06-15 08:51:11
> Suppose an event is so unlikely it only has 1 in a billion chance of happening--it will happen once ever 4 days on average!

Ok, the EU has 445M citizens[1] which means, by your logic, there should statistically be 40% more police "mistakes" than the US. Except there isn't. It is radically lower[2] (1536 for the USA in 2019 vs 51 for the EU in 2018/19).

[1] https://europa.eu/european-union/about-eu/figures/living_en [2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_killings_by_law_enforc...

replies(2): >>Gibbon+i1 >>marcel+tI1
2. Gibbon+i1[view] [source] 2020-06-15 09:05:36
>>zimpen+(OP)
You can also ignore cops in the US killing people and note the police have about 40 million black people in the US living in fear.
3. marcel+tI1[view] [source] 2020-06-15 19:26:48
>>zimpen+(OP)
That's an interesting and valid point.

First, a disagreement. Your base assumption that police activity should scale linearly with population. This is just obviously not correct. There are huge, huge differences in countries and crime rates. You can look at differences in homicide rate, for example [1]. The united states has a pretty shockingly high homicide rate for a developed country (4.96 per 100k). This is 5x higher than France or Germany. On the other end you have Japan, which is about 5x lower than France or Germany (25x lower than United States).

But that aside, the important question is: is crime driving police activity, or are the police widely malicious and corrupt? I'll admit that I'm not knowledgable enough to give a good answer to this question, but I'm very skeptical of jumping to a conclusion based on selective evidence on social media or recent news coverage.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_intention...

[go to top]