I'm not really interested in any job offers now, but I think one thing needs clarification. Does GMT-8 to GMT+1 mean that you are okay with active hours being pretty much standard of these timezones, or that you literally require that applicants' place of residence would be considered in one of these timezones? This can make a huge difference for people who prefer at least slightly unusual circadian rhythms (night owls and similar ; I definitely have history of such preference). And I'm mostly thinking about borderline cases like people in GMT+2 to GMT+4.
FWIW however, coincidentally I'm in GMT+1 right now.