Suppose there was a country where collectivism was prioritized. Harmony, conformity and agreeing with others is a point of pride.
Suppose both countries have similar government structures that allow ~everyone to vote. Would it really be surprising that the first country regularly has 50-50 splits, and the second country has virtually unanimous 100-0 voting outcomes? Is that outcome enough basis to judge whether one is "democratic" or not?
It only takes 51% of the vote to outlaw opposition.
Just recently, the US democratic convention stripped all the voters in New Hampshire from their votes the presidential candidates.