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[parent] [thread] 2 comments
1. antonc+(OP)[view] [source] 2020-06-18 00:44:34
No, but it would have to violate federal laws. Most crimes are crimes under state law. For example murder is illegal under state laws[1], it only falls under federal jurisdiction under certain circumstances, like if it is on federal property of involves from federal employees.

Sometimes when states fail to prosecute, or fail to get a conviction, the Feds will prosecute. But the original crime might not be a federal crime, so they prosecute under something else (there are ~3000 federal laws to choose from).

For example, sometimes when police kill citizens, and DAs don't prosecute, the Feds will. But the murder isn't in federal jurisdiction, so they charge them with "color of law"[2][3], which is a federal crime.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Murder_(United_States_law)#Jur...

[2] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Color_(law)

[4] https://www.justice.gov/crt/deprivation-rights-under-color-l...

replies(1): >>monadi+o4
2. monadi+o4[view] [source] 2020-06-18 01:32:59
>>antonc+(OP)
I would be surprised if the feds were not directed to make arrests and charge as harshly as possible.
replies(1): >>mywitt+Me
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3. mywitt+Me[view] [source] [discussion] 2020-06-18 03:23:36
>>monadi+o4
Bill Bar certainly doesn't strike me as a advocate for leniency in this situation
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