zlacker

[parent] [thread] 3 comments
1. shadow+(OP)[view] [source] 2020-06-01 20:29:45
Interesting. You're right about the gap between civil and criminal law, but I can't think of any examples of someone going after civil liability for something that happened in the past under the legal reasoning that a law passed after the act makes the act one a person can be liable for. Can you give an example?
replies(3): >>djannz+e6 >>abduhl+49 >>ikeboy+TY
2. djannz+e6[view] [source] 2020-06-01 21:02:48
>>shadow+(OP)
Not exactly the same, but the legislature retroactively extended the statute of limitations for sexual abuse lawsuits. Not a case of a newly illegal act, but a case where someone who was in the clear for a past act became liable again.
3. abduhl+49[view] [source] 2020-06-01 21:17:53
>>shadow+(OP)
A good example is the post-9/11 lawsuits filed against foreign governments that were enabled by passage of JASTA or liability for asbestos which was broadly enabled by legislation.
4. ikeboy+TY[view] [source] 2020-06-02 03:39:04
>>shadow+(OP)
https://blog.ericgoldman.org/archives/2020/01/new-civil-fost...

Several examples here.

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