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1. bronze+(OP)[view] [source] 2020-04-27 13:04:49
The difference is that it's the liquidation process from defaults that causes deflation, not the defaulting itself. Without the liquidation process, if you assume defaulting had no consequences, that's indeed inflation - as everyone is allowed to create money without consequence.
replies(1): >>jddj+36
2. jddj+36[view] [source] 2020-04-27 13:51:43
>>bronze+(OP)
Thanks. I think this point has made it a lot clearer.

So sure, the loaned money might still be in the system in some naive sense, but value has been destroyed in the asset price? Suddenly a lot less money buys a lot more asset and that's where we find the deflation.

If I borrow 1M for an asset in good times and can't pay it back, the creditor gets the asset and probably gets a good portion of that 1M back. If that same scenario plays out in bad times and my whole street defaults on the same asset at once, there's a resulting fire sale and far more value is destroyed (including being wiped off neighbouring, non-creditor-owned assets of the same type) than money added by leaving the loan sloshing around somewhere else in the economy.

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