What does this construction imply about BB(n)? In what sense is the BB sequence even well-defined if we can prove that it can't be determined?
(Edited for clarity.)
From this it follows (by proof by contradiction!) that BB(n) is undecidable/uncomputable (getting a bit hazy on these definitions). In any case, we cannot prove that BB(n) = K for any K.
Is it a problem that for all K we cannot prove that BB(n) = K? I don't think so, this is just another incompleteness result.