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[return to "Israeli startup claims Covid-19 likely originated in a lab, willing to bet on it"]
1. bearbi+d7[view] [source] 2020-12-30 21:22:08
>>delbar+(OP)
Whenever this topic comes up, the discussion seems to consist largely of _extremely_ strong opinions against the perfectly plausible hypothesis (don't forget, the evidence of zoonotic origin is equally thin on the ground).

My question is, why? What does it matter whether the virus originated from a lab or from a wet market - it isn't any more dangerous if it came from a lab, nor does knowing the origin really help dealing with this crisis at all.

It is certainly interesting to know where it did originate, and that knowledge could inform a debate on the future of (respectively) wet markets and animal husbandry practices, or BSL facilities, but these don't strike me as particularly emotionally charged topics, and in any case the posts I'm referring to don't mention these debates...

Anybody care to explain why you would respond so strongly to claims of lab origin?

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2. addict+Vh[view] [source] 2020-12-30 22:26:50
>>bearbi+d7
Because there is no strong evidence. Strong claims require strong evidence.
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3. bearbi+9k[view] [source] 2020-12-30 22:38:15
>>addict+Vh
But this (escape from a vial in a lab) isn't a strong claim, or at least no stronger than the alternative (the virus escaped from bat in a a wet-market)- why is there no outcry against the wet market hypothesis?
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4. sudosy+Rt[view] [source] 2020-12-30 23:39:35
>>bearbi+9k
Zoonosis is basically the null hypothesis, as this is the mechanism for essentially every single other virus. For this virus to be special and have a special and different origin requires evidence.
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5. maniga+P01[view] [source] 2020-12-31 04:57:58
>>sudosy+Rt
No, the null hypothesis is unknown origin. Science doesn't just default to either explanation without evidence.
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6. dash2+V71[view] [source] 2020-12-31 06:38:26
>>maniga+P01
That’s untrue. Null hypotheses are indeed typically “defaults” - for example, assuming, prior to any evidence, that X has no correlation with Y in the population. If you want to put it in a Bayesian framework, scientists cannot avoid priors any more than anybody else.
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