When I took physics they basically said "at first scientists were disturbed by the fact that magnets imply that two objects are interacting without any physical contact, but then Faraday came along and said 'the magnets are actually connected by invisible magnetic field lines' and that resolved everything."
How does saying "but what if there's invisible lines connecting them" resolve anything? To be clear, I'm not objecting to any of the actual electromagnetic laws or using field lines to visualize magnetic fields. It's just that I don't get how invoking invisible lines actually explains anything about how objects are able to react without physical contact.
(Also, it is not lost on me I that this question boils down to "fraking magnets, how do they work?")
The reason some people regard Faraday's original explanation of the eponymous law (it is worth noting that at the time it was widely regarded as inadequate and handwavy) as illuminating is because Faraday visualized his "lines of force" as literal chains of polarized particles in a dielectric medium, thereby providing a seemingly mechanistic local explanation of the observed phenomena. Not much of this mindset survived Maxwell's theoretical program and it has very little to do with how we regard magnetism today. Instead, the unification of electricity and magnetism naturally arises from special relativity, whereas the microscopic basis of magnetism requires quantum mechanics. There isn't really any place for naive contact mechanics in the modern picture of physics, so in that sense I would regard Faraday's view as misleading.
Finally, I can't end any "explanation" of magnetism without linking the famous Feynman interview snippet [1] where he's specifically asked about magnetism. It doesn't answer your question directly, but it's worth watching all the more because of it.
I don’t know anything about Feynman beyond vaguely associating his name with science, but watching this makes me want to seek out more from him.