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[return to "Algorithm can pick out almost any American in supposedly anonymized databases"]
1. Zenst+Jb[view] [source] 2019-07-24 11:56:40
>>zoobab+(OP)
If they can pick out individuals from the data, then the data is not anonymized. Sure they may have unassociated data spread across unassociated records, but if an algorithm can pick it out, then so could a human (though way more effort). That for me is not anonymized data.
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2. Alexan+Ic[view] [source] 2019-07-24 12:07:19
>>Zenst+Jb
> That for me is not anonymized data.

What matters is that this is what most online companies (and their terms of service) would call anonymized data.

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3. q-base+qe[view] [source] 2019-07-24 12:19:44
>>Alexan+Ic
If they operate in Europe then I am pretty sure that the GDPR legislation is pretty straight forward here. If you can de-anonymize the data then it is by definition not anonymized.
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4. Shaani+Jg[view] [source] 2019-07-24 12:36:41
>>q-base+qe
That seems correct.

From an article on the subject:

>Recital 26 of the GDPR defines anonymized data as “data rendered anonymous in such a way that the data subject is not or no longer identifiable.” Although circular, this definition emphasizes that anonymized data must be stripped of any identifiable information, making it impossible to derive insights on a discreet individual, even by the party that is responsible for the anonymization.

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5. shusso+ii[view] [source] 2019-07-24 12:47:44
>>Shaani+Jg
it is not clear to me if this covers re-identifying.
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